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== Changed bible translation from KJV to NRSV == |
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I've changed some of the translations of bible passages used from KJV to NRSV to reflect a more mainstream academic English language bible translation (See: ] and ]) ] (]) 01:16, 31 December 2019 (UTC) |
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- Just adding my thanks for this. <!-- Template:Unsigned --><small class="autosigned">— Preceding ] comment added by ] (] • ]) 22:39, 2 January 2020 (UTC)</small> <!--Autosigned by SineBot--> |
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== Proposed edit of 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 section == |
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I'm going to re-write 1 Corinthians 6:9-11 section as follows: |
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Original: |
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{{Quote|text= |
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The Greek word ''arsenokoitai'' ({{lang|grc|ἀρσενοκοῖται}}) in verse 9 has been debated for some time, and has been variously rendered as "sodomites" (NRSV), "abusers of themselves with mankind" (KJV), "men who have sex with men" (NIV) or "practicing homosexuals" (NET). Martin Luther translated the term as ''Knabenschaender'', or pederasts. Greek {{lang|grc|ἄῤῥην / ἄρσην}} means "male", and {{lang|grc|κοίτην}} "bed", with a sexual connotation.<ref name="pregeant">{{cite book|last=Pregeant|first=Russell|editor=Stefan Koenemann & Ronald A. Jenner|title =Knowing truth, doing good: engaging New Testament ethics|publisher =Fortress Press|year =2008|page=252|isbn =978-0-8006-3846-7|url=https://books.google.com/books?id=5kvAQEFk5K8C&lpg=PA252}}</ref> Paul's use of the word in 1 Corinthians is the earliest example of the term; its only other usage is in a similar list of wrongdoers given (possibly by the same author) in 1 Timothy 1:8–11: In the letter to the Corinthians, within the list of people who will not inherit the kingdom of God, Paul uses two Greek words: ''malakoi'' and ''arsenokoitai''. '']'' is a common Greek word meaning, of things subject to touch, "soft" (used in Matthew 11:8 and Luke 7:25 to describe a garment); of things not subject to touch, "gentle"; and, of persons or modes of life, a number of meanings that include "]".<ref name="Scott">{{cite web|url=http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0057:entry=MALAKO%2FS |title=Henry George Liddell, Robert Scott, ''A Greek-English Lexicon'', entry μαλακός |publisher=Perseus.tufts.edu |date= |accessdate=2014-03-11}}</ref> Nowhere else in ] is malakoi used to describe a person. |
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New: |
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{{Quote|text= |
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In the letter to the Corinthians, within the list of people who will not inherit the kingdom of God, Paul uses two Greek words: ] ({{lang|grc|μαλακοὶ}}) and arsenokoitai ({{lang|grc|ἀρσενοκοῖται}}). |
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Arsenokoitai (translated 'sodomites' in above translation) is a word first used by Paul in 1 Corinthians (and later in 1 Timothy 1). It is a compound word from the Greek words 'arrhēn / arsēn' ({{lang|grc|ἄῤῥην / ἄρσην}}) meaning "male", and koitēn ({{lang|grc|κοίτην}}) meaning "bed", with a sexual connotation.<ref name="pregeant">{{cite book|last=Pregeant|first=Russell|editor=Stefan Koenemann & Ronald A. Jenner|title =Knowing truth, doing good: engaging New Testament ethics|publisher =Fortress Press|year =2008|page=252|isbn =978-0-8006-3846-7|url=https://books.google.com/books?id=5kvAQEFk5K8C&lpg=PA252}}</ref> Arsenokoitai has been variously rendered as "sodomites" (NRSV), "abusers of themselves with mankind" (KJV), "men who have sex with men" (NIV) or "practicing homosexuals" (NET). |
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Malakoi (translated 'male prostitutes' in above translation) is a common Greek word meaning, of things subject to touch, "soft" (used in Matthew 11:8 and Luke 7:25 to describe a garment); of things not subject to touch, "gentle"; and, of persons or modes of life, a number of meanings that include "pathic".<ref name="Scott">{{cite web|url=http://www.perseus.tufts.edu/hopper/text?doc=Perseus:text:1999.04.0057:entry=MALAKO%2FS |title=Henry George Liddell, Robert Scott, ''A Greek-English Lexicon'', entry μαλακός |publisher=Perseus.tufts.edu |date= |accessdate=2014-03-11}}</ref> |
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Removed: |
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* Nowhere else in scripture is malakoi used to describe a person. - Point should be made in the interpretation section |
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* Martin Luther translated the term as ''Knabenschaender'', or pederasts. - Irrelevant to discussion |
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If no objections, I'll edit accordingly. ] (]) 03:16, 31 December 2019 (UTC) |
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:OBJECT: Please leave reference to pederasty in place. Martin Luther's translation of the word is hardly irrelevant inasmuch as it (1) bears witness to the point that several scholars make that Paul was specifically writing about (underage by today's standards) temple catamites, (2) is representative of a number of translations, and (3) was in widespread use in the US up to the late 19th century and informed a number of cultural stereotypes about gay men during a period in which homosexuality was pathologized. <!-- Template:Unsigned --><small class="autosigned">— Preceding ] comment added by ] (] • ]) 00:48, 1 January 2020 (UTC)</small> <!--Autosigned by SineBot--> |
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:: While Martin Luther's translation is interesting. I think it is more relevant to the interpretation section (or even ]). It's a historical interpretation that I couldn't find any modern translation using. ] (]) 23:00, 1 January 2020 (UTC) |
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::: Disagree. This section presents various ways in which an obscure Greek neologism has been rendered in modern translations. If the KJV is modern, so too is the Luther Bible. You'll find the same in Swedish and Norwegian etc. translations from this era as well; these, like the Luther Bible, have Paul indicating that <i>pederasts</i> will not inherit the Kingdom of Heaven. These are foundational translations and the discussion would be incomplete without them. - ] |
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::::I left the KJV in there as a large number of modern bible readers (not scholars) will use that translation. Happy to remove if it makes you more comfortable? For simplicity, I'll move the sentence about Luther's translation to the interpretation section so it is still in the article as it has relevance just not to the introduction of that section ] (]) 08:39, 3 January 2020 (UTC) |
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:::::Disagree. Please leave reference to KJV in place. Please leave references to pederasty in place; these belong to the body of well-known translations of the word, rather than interpretations of it. |
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:::::: How about, this sentence at the end of that paragraph: "Historical translations have translated into English as "abusers of themselves with mankind" (KJV) and Martin Luther translated the term as Knabenschaender, or pederasts." |
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:::::: That way we're prioritising more up to date scholarship while also mentioning important historical translations? ] (]) 12:19, 4 January 2020 (UTC) |
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Possibly, though I think most serious scholars these days would say that we can't really know exactly what Paul meant - hence the wide array of translations we see here and the reams and reams of books currently in print on the topic all with competing viewpoints. And I disagree that we can call the NIV or NEV scholarship as such. But in the interest of moving forward, what about "...or "practicing homosexuals" (NET), while Martin Luther and others translated the term as 'pederasts.'" |
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OBJECT: I also don't think you can quite say that this was a word "first used by Paul"; he appears to be borrowing it from the Septuagint translations of Lev. 18:22 and 20:23. <!-- Template:Unsigned --><small class="autosigned">— Preceding ] comment added by ] (] • ]) 00:48, 1 January 2020 (UTC)</small> <!--Autosigned by SineBot--> |
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: Pretty confident Paul was the first person to use the word. Although, as you've noted, it is likely he is borrowing from the Septuagint. Which is noted in detail on ]. Would you be more happy with the line being changed to: |
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:"...first used by Paul in 1 Corinthians (and later in 1 Timothy 1) although many scholars consider it to be adapted from the wording of the Septuagint translations of Leviticus 18:22 and 20:23."<ref name="Greenberg">David F. Greenberg, ''The Construction of Homosexuality'', 1990. Page 213: |
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:"The details of Boswell's argument have been challenged by several scholars — to this nonspecialist, persuasively.<sup>166</sup> These challengers suggest that arsenokoites was coined in an attempt to render the awkward<sup>[Page 214]</sup> phrasing of the Hebrew in Leviticus 18:22 and 20:13 into Greek,<sup>167</sup> or that it derives from an almost identical construction in the Septuagint translation of the Leviticus prohibitions.<sup>168</sup> A neologism was needed precisely because the Greeks did not have a word for homosexuality, only for specific homosexual relations (pederasty) and roles ..."</ref> ] (]) 23:00, 1 January 2020 (UTC) |
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:::Disagree. None of us can say with metaphysical certainty that Paul - or anyone for that matter - was the first to use this word. It would be more accurate to note that this is the first recorded usage of what appears to be a neologism. And disagree that we can say that Paul wrote 1 Timothy as a majority of scholars find conclusive evidence that 1 Timothy is pseudoepigraphic. Is the Greenberg excerpt new? It feels tangential and editorializes a bit. - ] |
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:::: How about: "...first recorded use by Paul in 1 Corinthians (and possibly later in 1 Timothy 1) although many scholars consider it to be adapted from the wording of the Septuagint translations of Leviticus 18:22 and 20:23"<ref name="Greenberg" /> |
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:::: The Greenburg ref was used on the New Testament and Homosexuality article but if you can find another reference I'm happy to add/replace the Greenburg one ] (]) 08:39, 3 January 2020 (UTC) |
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:::::I think this would work better without the reference to 1 Timothy 1. Or for clarity, "and later in 1 Timothy 1, attributed to Paul." I can live with the Greenberg, though I wish he hadn't editorialized. Somewhere here though we will want to note the number of scholars who believe that the section of Leviticus 18 in which verse 22 appears was added to the text by a later writer. That would be unwieldy here of course. Maybe best to link up to the section on Leviticus and go from there? - ] |
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::::::Nicly worded. So how about: "...first recorded use by Paul in 1 Corinthians (and later in 1 Timothy 1, attributed to Paul) although many scholars consider it to be adapted from the wording of the Septuagint translations of Leviticus 18:22 and 20:23"<ref name="Greenberg" />] (]) 12:19, 4 January 2020 (UTC) |
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That works for me. Thanks for suggesting it. <!-- Template:Unsigned --><small class="autosigned">— Preceding ] comment added by ] (] • ]) </small> |
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I don't believe it's appropriate to suggest that the translation as "sodomites" etc. isn't also "interpretation." There isn't really a good reason to separate out the discussion into a subsection. I do however approve of the use of a topic sentence in the section. –] (] ⋅ ]) 16:00, 17 January 2020 (UTC) |
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{{Reflist-talk}} |
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== Re: Havelock Ellis == |
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== Re: Havelock Ellis == |
Whether we keep the Ellis reference or not, "some sexual scholars" is a terrible phrasing. Beyond that, however, @Mathglot: I think you're making a couple of unencyclopedic leaps of logic. Ellis wasn't a biblical scholar or, for that matter, a historian, yes? So his opinion may be admissible in suggesting that "even" Victorians who didn't consider homosexuality a disease or a sin didn't think that Jonathan and David's relationship was romantic, but writing that he "concluded" that there was no evidence is a little strong for what we actually have. Ideally a secondary source would note this sort of thing. –Roscelese (talk ⋅ contribs) 21:33, 20 January 2020 (UTC)
Addendum: additional source on the topic in case anyone's interested is Dale B. Martin's 2006 book Sex and the Single Savior. It's all about historical shifts in interpretations of biblical texts on the topic, what the Bible has been allowed to mean over time. The adds to the point I'm trying to make: that this reading of the David and Jonathan story has historical staying power is fascinating and very much worthy of mention on this page, but it didn't serve the point to which it was attached. Is this really inconsistent with Misplaced Pages guidelines? — Preceding unsigned comment added by Metanoia2019 (talk • contribs) 04:25, 23 January 2020 (UTC)